2015 May AIIMS Questions and answers – previous question papers.

 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) conducts PG Entrance examination twice a year for admission to 160 MD/MS and MDS seats in various streams out of which 150 are medical and 16 are dental seats.

The MD/MS and MDS entrance exam for AIIMS PG 2015 July session was conducted this Sunday, 10th of May 2015. AIIMS post graduate entrance exams held online throughout the country decided the fate, talent and skills of the top enthusiastic future specialized doctors in the country.

The exam conducted had 200 solid questions with a 3 hour duration to answer the same. Each correct answer receives 4 marks, and for every incorrect answer, 25% i.e 1 mark is deducted.

The paper had around 6-8 repeats direct/indirect from the previous paper of Nov 2014. The overall repeats from 10 year would only reach a maximum of 20. The image based challenges in this paper were around 10.

 

On interviewing the doctors who gave this exam, they stated:

 

“The exam was more of a clinical oriented. AIIMS maintained its standards and it was a tough one to crack.”

 

A repeater stated that “Aiims Nov 2014 was not even close to being called tough as it could be solved with previous papers of ten years and their explanation, this AIIMS was very clinical based and a real challenge”

 

“Even an average student would have been able to crack AIIMS or get an eligibility with past papers as all it had, could be answered with question and answer based books like Amit Ashish or ACROSS and the explanation they had.

 

“Even few of the question were found to have confusing answers was a statement by another student”

“Having a command on each subjects with a subjectwise books will only yield fruitful results”

 

“The trend is changing and more emphasis is given for clinical aspects rather than facts.Most people have answered only 170-180 questions scared of carrying a negative mark. The cream of this exam can be expected to have a score of 65-70% with the toughness of the exam.”

 

 

2015 May AIIMS Questions and answers – A Bird view into the content.

 

1. ENT

 

1. Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis is treated locally by

1. acyclovir
2. cidofovir
3. zinc
4. ranitidine

Answer: B. Mechanical/laser removal of the papillomatous lesions combined with cidofovir injection, control visits and indirect laryngoscopy (stroboscopy) in outpatient clinic every 4–6 weeks, immediate hospitalization, and another surgical procedure in suspicion of recurrence.

Maximum total dose of cidofovir should not exceed 3 mg/kg.

Due to high toxicity of cidofovir,analysis of laboratory parameters like morphology with blood smear, urea, creatinine, ALT, AST, and bilirubin levels before the treatment, 1 day and 4 weeks after the injection.

All papillomas should be examined histopathologically to exclude any dysplastic features or malignant transformation.

 

 

2. A child has disc battery in the nose .Which is most appropriate concern ?

1. Keep on instilling nasal drops intermittently till the foreign body dislodges
2. Keep the battery as it is and refer to higher expertise for removal
3. Battery contents might leak resulting into chemical damage of the surrounding tissue
4. Elective removal as the child has high risk of contracting tetanus.

Answer: B. Keep the battery as it is and refer to higher expertise for removal

 

3. HPV do not cause which type of carcinoma

1. Base of tongue carcinoma
2. Tonsillar carcinoma
3. Oropharyngeal carcinoma
4. Laryngeal papillomatosis

Answer: C. Oro pharyngeal carcinoma

 

4. Artery supplying nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?

1. Ascending pharyngeal
2. Facial
3. Internal masseter
4. ?

5. Kashima operation done for

1. Vocal cords
2. Cholesteatoma
3. Industry surgery

Answer: A. Vocal cords

 

6. Most reliable test for eustachian tube dysfunction:

1. Politzer test
2. Tympanometry
3. VEMP
4. Rhinomanometry

Ans:Tympanometry

 

1. Pathology

1. Oil red O: is fat stain used on frozen sections (cryostat sections)
2. Lymphoma with starry sky appearance: C Myc (seen in burkitt’s)
3. Multiple factor deficiency: treatment is FFP ( not Cryo because cryo has only factor 8,13,vwf and fibrinogen) (not whole blood also because plasma in stored whole blood is deficient in factor 8 &5)
4. Platelets transfused pre operatively in thrombocytopenia to keep the levels at? 50000 (minimum)
5. Cause of caseous necrosis in TB: Delayed type of Hypersensitivity (t cells kill mycobacteria)
6. Female with suspected ovarian mass, on laparoscopy was found to have a smooth surface tumors with signet rings and mucin secreting cells: Krukenberg
7. Factor responsible for adhesion in platelets? : vwF
8. Factor increasing strength of clot: factor 13
9. Inheritance of ABO: codominant
10. Severity of disease increases with every generation: Anticipation-
11. Not autoimmune disease: UC
12. Crumpled tissue paper appearance: glucocerebroside accumulation (gaucher’s disease)
13. Fibroblasts in incised wound: 4-5 days
14. Forward scatter in Flow cytometry: indicates size of cell (side scatter indicates granularity of cell)
15. Microscopic view of fluorescent green RBCs on a dark background …. mechanism by which image is viewed?

1. By cathode ray tube
2. By dark field/phase condenser
3. Dichroic mirror
4. Phase plate

Answer: Dichroic mirror: this image is fluorescent microscopic image. Dichroic mirror transmits only one wavelength ( emitted by dye) not the light from source that is the reason why all fluorescent microscopic images are in black background

 

1. Crumpled tissue paper appearance of a cell on bone marrow examination – glucocerebroside accumulation in a cell.
2. Most abundant collagen in basement membrane – type 4
3. Carcinoma thyroid spreads mostly by lymphatics – papillary
4. Forward scatter in flow cytometry – cell size
5. Receptor for IgE is present on – mast cell
6. A karyogram with 2X and 1Y chromosome was given. Diagnosis is Klinefelter syndrome – gynecomastia with thin extremities.
7. Ovarian mass with smooth surface tumor with signet ring cells and mucin secreting cells – Krukenbergs tumor.
8. Diagnosis of Langerhan cell histiocytosis – Birbeck granules

 

1. Reticular fibres of collagen tissues are present in all except

1. Thymus
2. Bone marrow
3. Spleen
4. Lymph node

Answer: B. Bone marrow

 

1. Brown fat is not found in

1. scapula
2. subcutaneous
3. adrenal
4. around blood vessel

 

1. Two barr bodies are seen in??

1. XXX
2. 47 XXY
3. X0
4. 46 XX

Answer: A. Barr body is equal to no of x chromosome minus one

 

 

III. OBG

1. Dexa dose for lung maturity

1. 6 mg 4time 12 hrs apart
2. 6 mg 2 time 24 hrs apart
3. 12 mg 2 time 24 hrs apart
4. 12 mg 4 times 12 hrs apart

Answer: A.

1. Dose of carbetocin 100 mcg over 1 min I/v
2. Dose of FA 4mg
3. Fistula question is ureterovaginal
4. Amenorrhea galactorrhoea syndrome hcg
5. Amenorrhea breast development AIS
6. Proteinuria severe preeclampsia is 2gm
7. 6wk preg safe and accurate is Usg
8. Supports all except are recto ago all septum
9. Sperm count : 1.5 ml 15 million 4% and 32%
10. Unprotected intercourse:  copper T
11. Signet ring cells:  Krukenberg
12. 40 year old infertility and pcos:  ocp
13. Oocyte prophase
14. Recurrent abortion Vdrl

 

1. Drug of choice in hypertension in pregnancy

1. Enalapril
2. Methyldopa
3. Diuretics
4. Captopril

Answer: B.

 

1. Drug contraindicated in hypertension in pregnancy

1. Methyldopa
2. Labetalol
3. Nifedipine
4. Enalapril

Answer: D.

1. Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy? Methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporine, retinoids

 

 

1. PSM

1. Diastolic BP of 200 persons, values of 1st and 3rd quartile is 90 and 102 respectively. How many persons have diastolic BP above 102.

1. 25
2. 50
3. 90
4. 102

 

1. Nikshay software of Govt.of India is for

1. TB
2. High risk neonate
3. High risk pregnancy
4. Malaria/ accident or HIV

 

1. Sensitivity is

1. True positive
2. True negative
3. False positive
4. False negative

 

 

1. Mean GFR of 100 pt is 85 ml/min. SD is 25 ml/min. 90% confidence interval values lies between

1. 80 and 90
2. 81 and 89
3. 75 and 95
4. 83 and 87

 

1. In one study, highest value of 58 was mistakenly taken as 85.. This mistake will lead to

1. High mean, high median
2. High mean, same median
3. Low mean, same median
4. Same mean, high median

 

1. HDI includes

1. Life expectancy at birth, knowledge, descent life style
2. Life expectancy at one year, knowledge, descent lifestyle
3. Life expectancy at one year,…

 

 

1. Anatomy

1. Which of the following is not a branch of Ext carotid – transverse cervical
2. Which of the following does not have microvilli – CD
3. Fusion of xiphi and sternal body occurs at what age? – 8/12/16 years?
4. Which nucleus deep to facial colliculus – Abducens
5. Which of the following is not derived from mesonephric duct – Glomerulus
6. Which of the following is not a support of uterus – urogen diap/pelvic diap/perineal body/?
7. Nerve not having GVE – Olfactory

 

1. Physiology

1. Graph on cardiac cycle – point E
2. Extracellular fluid calculation – 18L
3. If resistance is doubled what’s the flow in vessel
4. Voluntary output fibres – Alpha/Gamma/both
5. Brown fat in all except – Subcut/Scapula/Adrenal cortex/along vessel
6. Beta cell also produces – Amylin
7. EMG+EOG+EEG – NREM/REM/??

 

VII. Biochem

1. Common enz bwn Glycogenesis and Glycogenolysis
2. siRNA – knock out/in/down
3. Q on glycogen storage diseases – history given
4. Cerebroside/galactosidase?
5. on total cholesterol HDL, LDL and something to calculate
6. A 6 month old child started vomiting and ceased to gain weight. At 8 months, he had to be admitted to the hospital. After one week, he started getting drowsy. He couldn’t tolerate feeding even by gastrostomy and had to be given intravenous glucose, following which he improved dramatically and came out of coma in 24 hours. Physical examination was normal, but his urine had high levels of glutamine and uracil, and increased levels of ammonia in blood. What is the enzyme defect he has?

1. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
2. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1
3. Argininosuccinate synthase
4. Arginase

 

 

1. Pharma

1. Methacholine – M2 agonist
2. Which of the following is protease inhibitor

1. enfuvirtide
2. saquinavir
3. adefovir

1. Haloperidol – starts with tremor – doc – carbamazepine
2. Some muscle twitching over eyes – drug to be used?
3. Drug not acting by insulin release? Pioglitazone

 

1. Lipolysis by which adrenoceptor

1. Alfa 1
2. Beta2
3. Alfa 2
4. Beta 3

 

1. Methacholine agonist at

1. M2
2. M1
3. M4
4. M3

Answer: A. Agonist of muscarinic receptors: M1-Oxotremorine, M2- Methacholine, M3- Bethanechol

 

1. Which of the following topical agents causes heterochromia iridis?

1. Latanoprost
2. Prednisolone
3. Timolol
4. Olopatadine

Answer: A. Latanoprost

 

1. Which of the following diuretic is most appropriate for mild or moderate HTN??

1. loop diuretic
2. thiazide
3. potassium sparing
4. osmotic diuretics

 

1. Carbetocin for postpartum hemorrhage?

1. 10 ml in 2 mins
2. 100 ml in 2 minutes
3. 20 ml in 1 minute
4. 200 ml in 2 minutes

 

1. Microbiology

1. Vibrio toxin acts by – desmosomes
2. Q on respiratory papillomatosis(one was HPV causes all cancer except – Ca tongue, Cw nasophar, Ca tonsil, Ca Respiratory mucosa?)
3. Hepatitis virus having retrovirus property?
4. Rheumatic fever suspected due to chorea but pharyngeal swab neg – best test now should b – ASO?/?
5. Person HBs pos but anti HBc neg – should tell pt that he is normal/do PCR DNA/repeat HBs after 6 months/?
6. Reverse transcriptase virus

1. Hep.A
2. Hep.B
3. Hep.C
4. Hep.E

 

1. Glyceryl Trinitrate is given sublingual as it is a

1. Nonionic compound with high lipid solubility
2. Ionic compound with high lipid solubility
3. Ionic compound with low lipid solubility
4. Nonionic compound with lipid solubility

 

 

1. FMT –

1. Car falling down – diff between driver and bajuwala, seat belt
2. Wound on shin of tibia – patient was asked to do dressing, patient did not do the dressing, Doctor was in a busy schedule and doesn’t take care of the patient spreads to bone, negligence?
3. Site of knot in classical hanging ?

 

1. Mr.X shot mr.Y with shotgun, but Mr.Y got a small injury on thigh, and mild bleeding which stopped spontaneously. Bt still Mr.Y filed case against mr.X. What will be the IPC for penalty to Mr.X

1. 302
2. 304
3. 324
4. 326

 

1. Judicial hanging knot at

1. Angle of jaw
2. At mandible
3. Behind occiput
4. Depend on hangman

 

1. Criminal act 2013 . Conset age limit of Sexual Offences

1. 16Yr
2. 18yr
3. 14yr
4. 15yr

Answer: B. 18yr

 

1. Delaying of death sentence by high court in case of pregnant female is delayed till delivery is under IPC

1. 316
2. 317
3. 318
4. 319

 

XIII. Ophth

1. Stain for Granular stromal dystrophy – masson’s trichrome
2. Trochanteric nerve palsy – ?

 

1. Which of the following drugs won’t cause whorls like opacities in cornea?

1. Chloroquine
2. Amiodarone
3. Chlorpromazine
4. Indomethacin

ANSWER

 

1. Characteristic marker of limbal epithelial cell

1. keratin
2. ABCG2
3. enolase
4. collagen

ANSWER: B. abcg2

 

1. The retina receives its blood supply from all except :-

1. posterior ciliary artery
2. central retinal artery
3. retinal arteries
4. plexus of zinn and haller artery

ANSWER D. supplies optic disc

 

1. Med

1. RTA with hypoglycemia – i.v. Dextrose
2. Hypertensive bleed – Basal ganglia

3. Some lead poisoning case?????
4. First sign of alcohol withdrawal – tremors
5. DLCO increased in all except – Asthma
6. 1-2 syndromes(hurler?)???????
7. Anomic aphasia – cannot name things but comprehension and all normal
8. Regarding TRALI, which is not true?

1. Present in 24 hrs
2. Hypoxemia and noncardiogenic pul edema are cardinal feat
3. assoc wid all blood products,characteristically with plasma
4. Mc in pt with sepsis and cardiac transplants

answer: TRALI is mostly associated with fresh frozen plasma and platelets, so the best answer look like occurs within 24 hrs.

9. Which of the following complications is likely to result after several units of blood transferred ?

1. Metabolic alkalosis.
2. Metabolic acidosis.
3. respiratory alkalosis.
4. respiratory acidosis

 

10. Most commonly involved part in hypertension

1. Basal ganglia
2. Thalamus
3. Hemisphere

 

11. Bosentan- used in pulmonary artery hypertension.

 

XVI. Surgery

1. Oesophageal ca prognosis depends on?

1. T stage
2. Length of segment involved
3. Age of presentation
4. o

Answer Tstage

2. A child with billiary atresia – preop bili 12, hepatojejunostomy done, postop 2 weeks bili 6, cause?
3. Incision for diaphragm surg – circumlinear
4. screening not useful in which cancer?

1. colon

1. prostate
2. testicular
3. breast

ANSWER C

5.  Absent microvilli?

1. Pct
2. Duodenum
3. CT
4. Gall bladder

ANSWER C:CT

6. Prophylactic splenectomy was done. Resistant case of ITP to steroids , patient develops fever , chills and rigor. Isnt it ? Penumococcal pneumonia .. Lower lobe consolidation on cxr. ? lung atelectasis

 

7. Pepetic ulcer is asso with all except one??

1. cirrhosis
2. zollinger ellison syndrome
3. primary hyperparathyroidism
4. pernicious anemia

8. 3 yr old child with hydrocoele hernia sac.. Management?

1. Herniotomy
2. Herniorrhaphy
3. Observation
4. 9

Ans herniotomy

9. Mallory weiss tear mc artery involved?

1. Short gastric
2. Left gastric
3. Coronary
4. Phrenic

Ans B

10. Oncocyte dx test is done for?

1. Chemotherapy in HR -ve
2. Hormone therapy in HR +ve
3. Herceptin in HER2 +ve
4. Hormone therapy in HR -ve

Ans

11. 2month neonatal hepatitis with conjugated bilirubin .. liver biopsy showed granular cytoplasm which is pas positive..diagnosis 1 cong hepatic fibrosis 2 extrahepatic biliary atresia 3 malformation of duct 4

 

12. patient after splenectomy developed chill and rigor on 3 rd day..what correlates with the patient. 1- consolidation in lung 2- uti 3- renal failure..4- port site infection

 

13. MESORECTUM CONTAINS ALL EXCEPT .sup rectal vein,inf rectal vein pararectal nodes ,some plexus

inferior rectal artery

 

14.  the q 60 yr old female with blood stained nipple discharge with +ve family h/o breast ca NEXT investigation after clinical assessment?

MRI

ductography

cytology of discharge

sono mammogram?

 

15. a young girl with a mass in lower abdomen involving hypogastrium , unable to insinuate fingers from pelvic bone??

1. duplication of intestine
2. mesenteric cyst
3. omental cyst
4. ovarian cyst

 

16. m/c bariatric surgery

1. laparo band
2. sleeve gastrectomy
3. roux en y

 

17.during inguinal hernia operation a track was left in the lateral part of iliopubic tract…pt complaints of paraesthesia & pain in rt.thigh,nerve involved?

a ilioinguinal nv.

b genitofemoral nv.

c lat. cutaneous nv.of thigh…

d obturator nv

Was site of paresthesia mentioned-

Anterior thigh- Genitofemoral nerve

Lateral thigh- Lat cutaneous nerve of thigh

I guess here answer should be lat cutaneous nr of thigh

 

18. Best imaging modality to diagnose acute appendicitis in children. Answer is CT scan.

 

 

XVII. Ortho

1 Young adult with irreparable rotator cuff injury, which of the following procedures can be done?

1. Acromioplasty
2. Tendon transfer
3. Total shoulder replacement
4. Reverse shoulder replacement

Answer B.  tendon transfer

2. Card test for?

1. Dorsal interossei
2. Palmar interossei
3. Lumbricals
4. Thenar muscles

Answer:palmar mnemonic– P”AD

3. Which traction nt used in lower limb?

1. perkins
2. bryants
3. dunlop

ANSWER c Dunlop
4. Jersey finger is due to rupture of?

1. extensor digiti minimi
2. extensor pollicis
3. FDP
4. FDS

Ans: A Jersey finger (also called Rugby finger or Sweater finger) describes a type of injury where there is avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) at the base of the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP)

5. What is not done while removing intervertebral disc?

1. Laminectomy
2. Laminotomy.
3. Laminoplasty
4. Hemilaminectomy

6. Most active part of bone

1. Cortical bone
2. Cancellous bone
3. Periosteum
4. Endosteum

7. osteoporosis

1. low calcium high alk phosphate
2. normalalcium high alk phosphate
3. lowalcium low alk phosphate
4. ?

8. 16. A person falls from building and lands on foot. What #’s correspond to this injury

1. Cervical #
2. Pond#
3. Lumbar #
4. base of skull #.

9. Judet view is for

1. Pelvis
2. Calcaneum
3. Scaphoid
4. ?

ANSWER 2. Calcaneum

10. muscle not attached at greater tubercle ?

1. supraspinatus
2. subscapularis
3. infraspinatus
4. teres minor

Ans: subscapularis

 

 

XVIII. Dermat

1) A 65 year old male with itchy bullae over erythematous areas and normal skin

1. a) bullous pemphigoid
2. b) dermatitis herpetiformis
3. c) IgA pemphigus
4. d) pemphigus vulgaris

Ans: A

2) A 23 yr old pregnant diabetic female comes with lake of pus lesions on skin. Treatment is

1. a) methotrexate
2. b) azathioprine
3. c) retinoids

d)Cyclosporine

Ans: Cyclosporine

3) Young female with blue macules on forehead and ocular macules. The diagnosis is

1. a) Mongolian spot
2. b) Nevus of ota
3. c) Nevus of ito
4. d) Beckers nevus

Ans: nevus of ota

4) 50 year old male from bihar came with symmetrical juicy papules and nodules with hypopigmentation on face and trunk. There was no hypoaesthesia and nerve thickening. There was fever in childhood

1. a) LL
2. b) Post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis
3. c) BL
4. d) Mycosis fungoides

Ans: post kala azar dermal leiahmaniasis

5)patient comes with more than 30% skin blistering with lip involvement. common cause.

1. a) bacteria
2. b) virus
3. c) drugs
4. d) malignancy

Ans: drugs (This was a question on TEN)

6) Picture was that of a lady with two white patches over the neck and chin associated with leucotrichia options were

1. Segmental vitiligo
2. Acne vulgaris
3. Focal vitiligo
4. Piebaldism

Ans: Segmental vitiligo

7) Papular lesions on dorsum of hands ,shaft of penis in a child (confusion as to what this question was- itchy? Non-itchy? Since 7 days?). Hence not answering this.

1. a) lichen planus
2. b) Lichen niditus
3. c) Lichen scrofulosorum
4. d) Scabies

Ans:? Lichen nitidus ? Scabies

8) A picture with hyperpigmented margins with central hypopigmentation whose margins looked ike punched out lesions:

1. a) BB
2. b) BL
3. c) LL
4. d) Histoid hansens

Ans: BB

9) A face of a lady was shown with red macular lesions on central part of face around the cheek and chin with flushing on sun exposure and increasing with emotional disturbance

1. a) Acne vulgaris
2. b) Acne rosacea
3. c) SLE
4. d) DLE

Ans: Rosacea

10) 70 yr old man with vesicular rash on lower limb after a course of steroids. Tzanck smear shows multinucleate giant cells.

1. a) VZV
2. b) Vaccinia
3. c) Molluscum
4. d) M. Tb

Ans: VZV

 

Radiology

1• Judet view of X-ray is for : Acetabulum (pelvis is best answer)

2• Shenton line is seen in X ray of Hip

3• IOC for acute appendicitis in children :USG

4• Investigation of choice in stress fracture: MRI

5• Investigation of choice for biliary atresia in a 2 month old is : Hepatic scintigraphy

6• Patient with h/o tachyarrhythmias is on Implantable cardioverter defibrillator. He develops shock. Best method to know the integrity of ICD is to do : Plain Radiograph

7• Expansion of the subarachnoid space is seen in intradural extramedullary tumours

8• Safe & accurate for viability at 6 weeks is USG

9• Best non invasive investigation for myocardial viability is FDG PET

10• Hypertensive hemorrhage most commonly affects: Basal ganglia

 

 

Anatomy

 

1. Lower part of sternum fused by age
2. a) 12 years
3. b) 14 years
4. c) 18 years
5. d) 10 years

 

Answer: 14 years

Explanation:

In cartilaginous sternum, five double bony centres appear from above downwards during fifth, sixth, seventh, eighth and ninth fetal months.

The upper centre forms the manubrium.

Remaining four form body of sternum and fuse with one another from below to upwards.

Lower two centres fuse at age of 14 years and upper two centres fuse between 14 to 25 years.

The centre of xiphoid process appears during the third years or later and fuses with the body at about 40 years.

 

2. Reticular fibres of collagen tissues are present in all except
3. a) Thymus
4. b) Bone marrow
5. c) Spleen
6. d) Lymph node

 

Answer: Thymus

Explanation:

Reticular fibres are regarded as one variety of collagen fibre.

In many situations, these fibres form supporting networks of the cells.

In bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes the reticular network is closely associated with reticular cells.

Most of these cells are fibroblasts, but some may be macrophage.

 

3. Cranial nerve nucleus lying deep to facial colliculus
4. a) Facial
5. b) Abducent
6. c) Glosso-pharyngeal
7. d) Trigeminal

 

Answer: Abducent

Explanation:

The facial colliculus is an anatomical elevation in the floor of the fourth ventricle.

The facial colliculus is not formed by the facial nerve nucleus, but by the abducens nerve nucleus and the motor fibres of facial nerve loop dorsal to the 6th (Abducent) CN nucleus before leaving the brainstem.

 

4. Collagen typical of basement membrane
5. a) Type I
6. b) Type V
7. c) Type IV
8. d) Type III

 

Answer: Type IV

Explanation:

Type of collagen:

Fibril Forming Collagens:

Collagens Type I- Bone, Tendon, Skin, Cornea and Blood Vessels

Collagens Type II- Cartilage, Inter-vertebral Disk, Vitrous Body

Collagens Type III-Blood Vessels and Fetal skin

Network Forming Collagens:

Collagens Type IV- Basement membrane

Collagens Type VII- Beneath stratified squamous epithelia

Fibril Associated Collagens:

Collagens Type IX- Cartilage

Collagens Type XII- Tendon, Ligament

 

5. Muscle not inserted on greater trochanter
6. a) Teres minor
7. b) Supra-spinatus
8. c) Infra-spinatus
9. d) Sub-scapularis

 

Answer: Sub-scapularis

Explanation:

Muscle- Inserted on greater tubercle

Supra-spinatus- Upper most impression

Infra-spinatus- Middle impression

Teres Minor-Lower impression

 

6. Not a branch of external carotid artery
7. a) Trans-cervical artery
8. b) Lingual
9. c) Superior thyroid artery
10. d) Ascending pharyngeal

 

Answer: Trans-cervical artery

Explanation:

External carotid artery is the chief artery of supply to structures in front of the neck and in the face.

External carotid artery gives eight branches.

Anterior: Superior thyroid, lingual and facial

Posterior: Occipital and posterior auricular

Middle: Ascending pharyngeal

Terminal: Maxillary and superficial temporal

 

7. Card test done for
8. a) Lumbricals
9. b) Dorsal interossei
10. c) Palmar interossei
11. d) Adductor pollicis

 

Answer: Palmar interossei

Explanation:

Card test is for palmar interossei of the finger and tested by placing a piece of paper between fingers and seeing how firmly it can be held.

First dorsal interossei can be separately examined by asking the patient to abduct the index finger against the resistance.

 

8. Microvilli are seen in all; except
9. a) Duodenum
10. b) Gall bladder
11. c) PCT
12. d) Collecting duct

 

Answer: Collecting duct

Explanation:

Microvilli are finger like projections from the cell surface that can be seen by EM.

Each microvillus consists of an outer covering of plasma membrane and cytoplasmic core in which there are numerous microfilaments (Actin filaments).

Microvilli are seen most typically at sites of active absorption e.g. the intestine and proximal and distal convoluted tubules of kidney.

The inner surface of the gall bladder is covered by the mucosa. The surface is made up of a simple columnar epithelium. The epithelial cells have microvilli, and look like absorptive cells in the intestine.

 

9. Metabolically active part in bone
10. a) Periosteum
11. b) Endosteum
12. c) Cancellous bone
13. d) Cortical bone

 

Answer:

Explanation:

 

10. Special visceral efferent carries all the cranial nerve except
11. a) Facial
12. b) Vagus nerve
13. c) Olfactory
14. d) Glosso-pharyngeal

 

Answer: Olfactory

Explanation:

Special visceral efferent (SVE) refers to efferent nerves that provide motor innervations to the muscles of the pharyngeal arches in humans.

The only nerves containing SVE fibers are cranial nerves: the trigeminal nerve (V), the facial nerve (VII), the glosso-pharyngeal nerve (IX), the vagus nerve (X) and the accessory nerve (XI).

 

11. Meso-nephric ducts and tubules give rise to all except
12. a) Glomeruli
13. b) Paroophoron
14. c) Epididymis
15. d) Vas deference

 

Answer: Glomeruli

Explanation:

Fate of meso-nephric duct and tubules in the female:

Collecting tubules, calyces, renal pelvic, ureter

Trigone of bladder

Epoophoron

Paroophoron

Fate of meso-nephric duct and tubules in the male:

Collecting tubules, calyces, renal pelvic, ureter

Trigone of bladder

Posterior wall of the part of the prostatic urethra

Epididymis, Ductus deference, Vas deference, Seminal vesicle, Ejaculatory duct

Meso-dermal part of prostate

The excretory tubules or nephrons are derived from the lower part of the nephrogenic cord.

 

12. Meso-rectal fascia doesn’t contain which of the following
13. a) Inferior rectal vein
14. b) Para-rectal node
15. c) Superior rectal vein
16. d) Inferior mesenteric plexus

 

Answer: Inferior rectal vein

Explanation:

Peri-rectal fat separated by the rectal fascia – the so-called meso-rectum – contains Superior rectal vessels, meso-rectal fat, lymphatic vessels and nodes.

It is the first area of local rectal cancer dissemination.

Thus, its removal along with the rectum affected by the tumor is essential for preventing local tumor recurrence.

 

13. Which of these is not a support of the uterus?
14. a) Urogenital diaphragm
15. b) Pelvic diaphragm
16. c) Perineal body
17. d) Recto-vaginal septum

 

Answer: Recto-vaginal septum

Explanation:

Primary support of the uterus:

Muscular or active support:

Pelvic diaphragm

Perineal body

Urogenital diaphragm

Fibro-muscular or mechanical support:

Uterine axis

Pubo-cervical ligament

Transverse cervical ligament of Mackenrodt

Utero-sacral ligament

Round ligament of uterus

 

 

2. Bosentan- used in pulmonary artery hypertension.

 

3.. Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy? Methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporine, retinoids

 

4. Visual questions: Acne rosacea.

 

5. Carbetocin dosage in postpartum hemorrhage. Answer is 100 microgram over 2 minutes either intramuscularly or intravenously.

 

6. Artery supply to juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?

 

7. For hypertensive hemorrhage. Most common site among given option was basal ganglia. Usually putamen is most common site.

 

8.. Trochlear nerve supply to the eye muscle and related action was asked.

 

10. Oncotype Dx test was asked.

 

11. Card test used for: palmar interossei

 

12. Visual question

 

13. Breast lump of 2.5 cm, sonography was normal. What was the next line of investigation. Or treatment.

 

14..

 

15.Atracurium is given for both liver and kidney failure patient.

 

17. Human papilloma virus, doesn’t cause nasopharyngeal cancer.

 

18.Japanese encephalitis vaccine.

 

19. Direct ophthalmoscopy.

 

20.Evisceration and 4 conditions. Panophthalmitis, etc..

21.Cherry red spots seen in ? CRAO or CRVO ?

 

22.Cherry red spot and history of blunt trauma. Is it berlin’s edema.?

 

23.Inguinal hernia in 3 years old child .. Herniotomy.

 

24.One question was asked. Laparotomy was done in suspected ovarian tumour. Bilateral ovarian tumour seen with signet ring appearance. Is it krukenberg tumour?

 

25.One picture of bullous pemphigoid or lupus vulgaris.

 

26.For diaphragmatic surgery, we prefer circumferential incision. Isn’t it ?

 

27.Microfilariae something asked and parasite name was given . i am sure about brugia malayi, wuchereria bancrofti, onchocerca. The remaining option was answer. Isn’t it ?

 

28.Orthopedic question regarding traction used for lower limbs except.. ? Dunlop, bryants , etc.

29.Shenton’s line seen in ? Hip, knee, elbow etc.

 

30.After operating for inguinal hernia. Accidently tackers were applied near illio pubic tract . patient had pain near the right thigh. Is it due to involvement of lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh ?

 

41.Judet view used for ? Pelvic, calcaneal, scaphoid etc.

 

42. For sexual assault. Now the age is 16 years. Initially it was 18 years. Right.

 

43.Hearing loss caused by all except.. Option metronidazole, amikacin, gentamicin , chloroquine .

 

44.Corenal dystrophy and stain used ?

 

45.One question on mesenteric cyst or duplication of intestine.

 

46. Ioc for biliary atresia.. Ct of hepatic scintigraphy.

 

47. H1N1 and pregnancy. I guess , option -2 was the answer. As we do testing for H1N1 in case of category-B. If not wrong.

 

48.Rat hole injury etc.. Forensic. Is it fire arm ?

 

49. Both gulconeogenesis and glycolysis requires the same enzyme. ?

 

50.One question on von-Grieke disease. Fasting hypoglycemia+ hepatomegaly.

 

51. Choera toxin related question. Is it causes hemidesmosome damage?

 

52.Recent streptococcal pharyngitis is diagnosed by ASO antibody titre.

 

53.One clincal history given , were patient was on diabetic drug ie metformin 500 mg bd and glipizide 5 mg od. Develops hypoglycemic attacks , met with head injury , remains unconscious in emergency room. We will draw a blood sample test , run a test for glucose measurement, give iv dextrose , once stable NCCT of head.

Along with maintaining of airway.

 

53.One blunt injury to the chest. Female pregnant lady. Immediate measurement is needle puncture to the right chest.

 

54.Missed abortion (5 times). Options by exclusion in making a diagnosis. Ie anti phospholipid syndrome , karyotyping , lupus anti coagulant , vdrl for both husband and wife.

 

55.Primary amenorrhea. Given estrogen and progesterone, for 6 months . No menstrual bledding. Is it turner syndrome , premature ovarian failure, androgen resistence

 

56.Which liver enzymes get’s elevated in lead poisoning.?

57.Retinoblastoma spreads through ? Vascular invasion, lymphatics, direct spread.

 

69.. In one person, 10 gm mannitol was given Intravenously. After sometime urinalysis revealed 10% excreted in urine and plasma concentration was 20mg/100 ml.. What is extracellular fluid volume..

1. 5 liter
2. 18 liter
3. 24 liter

 

76.which of the following is not part of

Duke criteria

-splenomegaly, fever above104, blood culture positive .

 

79.Pregnant female should not be

executed for hanging according to s

416 crpc

: 80.If radius of artery increased 50

% .blood increase by 5 % is the answer

.

81.26 y old man from Bihar with nodules

over face, over back-hypopigmented,

normoaesthetic macules with no

nerve thickening. h/o prolonged fever

present in childhood

image of lesions on the back.

82.post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis

Ans pelvis.

:83.A Jersey finger is an injury to an

FDP tendon

image based..

84.Nevus of ota was the answer

:

85.Judicial hanging – knot below jaw

angle

86. Reticular fibres of collagen tissues

are Kashima operation done for

Vocal cord

nikshay is govt softwere for TB

survillence

which of the following is not part of

Duke criteria

-splenomegaly

 

 

Pregnant female should not be

executed for hanging according to s

416 crpc

: If radius of artery increased 50

% .blood increase by 5 %. ans

Pharmacology

 

26 y old man from Bihar with nodules

over face, over back-hypopigmented,

normoaesthetic macules with no

nerve thickening. h/o prolonged fever

present in childhood

image of lesions on the back

pst kala azar dermal leishmaniasis

Ans pelvis

: A Jersey finger is an injury to an

FDP tendon

image based

Nevus of ota was the answer: Judicial hanging – knot below jaw

angle

 

Reticular fibres of collagen tissues

are present in all except

1. a) Thymus ✅
2. b) Bone marrow
3. c) Spleen
4. d) Lymph node

Collagen typical of basement

membrane TYPE 4

rathole injury seen in firearm in all except

1. a) Thymus
2. b) Bone marrow
3. c) Spleen
4. d) Lymph node.
5. Collagen typical of basement

membrane TYPE 4.

 

In one person, 10 gm mannitol was given Intravenously. After sometime urinalysis revealed 10% excreted in urine and plasma concentration was 20 mg/100 ml.. What is extracellular fluid volume..

1. 5 liter
2. 18 liter
3. 24 liter

 

6.Histrionic and avoidant anxious type of personality?

1. Type A
2. Type B
3. Type C
4. Type D

ANSWER C.  anxious avoidant is C, histrionic is B,ye well known hai…  Ab weightage of C seems more here.

 

Question: Nephropathy most commonly associated with malignancy. 1- fsgs 2-mcd 3-membranous 4- mpgn

 

HADDON MATRIX-The Haddon Matrix is the most commonly used paradigm in the injury prevention field.

Developed by William Haddon in 1970, the matrix looks at factors related to personal attributes, vector or agent attributes, and environmental attributesbefore, during and after an injury or death. By utilizing this framework, one can then think about evaluating the relative importance of different factors and design interventions.

 

Which drug is least ototoxic ….vancomycin, gentamicin, chloroquine, metronidazole.

Best test for Eustachian tube function ?? Tympanometry

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